_____ 1. A kidney removed from a recently dead cadaver for the purposes of
transplantation would be expected to show which of the following changes:
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Autolysis
C. Infarction
D. Liquefactive necrosis
E. Apoptosis
_____ 2. Histologically, which of the following pairs are similar?
A. Coagulative Necrosis - Liquefactive Necrosis
B. Caseation Necrosis - Coagulative Necrosis
C. Gummatous Necrosis - Liquefactive Necrosis
D. Caseation Necrosis - Liquefactive Necrosis
E. Caseation Necrosis - Gummatous Necrosis
_____ 3. Apoptosis is a process of cellular destruction which is:
A. dependent on lack of ATP
B. dependent on normal calcium influx
C. dependent on active protein synthesis
D. dependent on production of oxygen-free radicals
E. dependent on loss of plasma membranes
_____ 4. Liquefactive necrosis is the result of the action of:
A. T-lymphocytes
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
C. T-Lymphocytes plus monocytes
D. Monocytes plus B-lymphocytes
E. T-lymphocytes plus B-lymphocytes
_____ 5. Cellular reactions to viruses, mycobacteria, and spirochetes are
characterized by a paucity or lack of:
A. B-lymphocytes
B. Plasma cells
C. T-lymphocytes
D. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
E. Monocytes
_____ 6. Fluid and electrolyte loss in cholera is due to:
A. invasion of the intestinal epithelial cells by the organism
B. destruction of intestinal lining cells by the action of
inflammatory cells
C. bacterial toxin activation of a cyclic AMP - dependent kinase
D. interruption of the mitochondrial cytochrome chain by
bacterial toxin
E. destruction of cellular membranes by antibodies directed
against the bacteria
_____ 7. Inhalation of fumes of carbon tetrachloride causes fatty change
and necrosis to the liver by:
A. dissolving lipid membranes of hepatocytes
B. inactivating mitochondrial lipid membranes
C. inducing an autoimmune reaction against hepatocytes
D. formation of free radicals
E. releasing hepatic lysosomal enzymes
_____ 8. Reperfusion of myocardium after a period of ischemia-induced
hypoxia is:
A. a sure way to save tissue from infarction
B. associated with production of liquefactive necrosis rather
than coagulative necrosis
C. capable of formation of oxygen-free radicals via oxidation of
hypoxanthine
D. responsible for inactivation of calcium activated processes
which destroy lysosomal enzymes
E. associated with influx of toxic levels of potassium
_____ 9. Damage to tissues and cells results from the extra-cellular
accumulation of:
A. Amyloid
B. Glycogen
C. Hyaline
D. Melanin
E. Phlogiston
____ 10. Pompe's disease (glycogenosis type II) is one of the diseases
associated with abnormal storage within:
A. Mitochondria
B. Nuclei
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Endoplasmic retriculum
E. Lysosomes
____ 11. Normal endothelial cells resist clotting by means of all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. vonWillebrand factor
B. Prostacyclin (PGI2)
C. Thrombomodulin
D. Protein S
E. Plasminogin activator
____ 12. Clinically significant bleeding disorders are commonly encountered
in patients with deficiencies of all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Fibrinogen
B. Prothrombin
C. Factor VIII (AHG)
D. Factor IX (Christmas factor)
E. Hageman Factor (XII)
____ 13. Increased tendency to thrombosis is associated with:
A. deficiency of anti-thrombin III
B. deficiency of protein C
C. nephrotic syndrome
D. malignancies
E. all of the above
____ 14. Regular use of small doses of aspirin reduces tendency to form
thromboses by inhibiting:
A. platelet factor III
B. endothelial prostacyclin
C. activation of plasminogen activator
D. platelet thromboxane
E. all of the above
____ 15. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) results in:
A. consumption of fibrinogin - fibrin
B. consumption of platelets
C. consumption of coagulation factors V and VIII
D. activation of plasminogin
E. all of the above
____ 16. Fibrinolysis involves all of the following to generate plasmin
(fibrinolysin) EXCEPT:
A. plasminogen
B. plasminogen activator
C. complement factor C1
D. prekallikrein
E. HMWK (high molecular weight kininogen)
____ 17. Deep leg vein thromboses are increased in:
A. women smokers who used estrogen compounds
B. malignancies
C. congestive heart failure
D. post-trauma period
E. all of the above
____ 18. Torsion (twisting of the spermatic cord) of the testis usually results
in hemorrhagic infarction of the testis. This is most likely due to:
A. cutting off the arterial blood supply with ischemia
B. intratesticular capillary thromboses
C. interference with venous drainage from the testis
D. interference with lymphatic drainage
E. none of the above
____ 19. Pulmonary thromboemboli may result in:
A. Pulmonary hypertension
B. Acute pulmonary infarcts
C. Sudden death
D. No symptoms
E. All of the above
____ 20. All of the following are considered to be inhibitors of proliferation
of various types of cells EXCEPT:
A. TGF[beta] (Transforming Growth Factor Beta)
B. Platelet-derived growth factor
C. Prostaglandin E2
D. Alpha interferon
E. Heparin
____ 21. Wound healing involves all of the following reactions EXCEPT:
A. platelet binding to connective tissue matrix
B. immobilization of growth factors by matrix proteins
C. inactivation of thrombin
D. increased formation of integrins
E. release of monocytic cytokines
____ 22. All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:
A. A single type of mucopolysaccharide (glycosaminoglycan)
characterizes all connective tissues.
B. During hepatic regeneration after injury there is progressive
change in the type of collagen found in the repaired
liver.
C. Corneal injuries may result in healing with altered mucopoly-
sacchrides with loss of transparency.
D. Basement membrane collagen Type IV lacks fibrils.
E. Tensile strength of healing wounds is best correlated to
collagen production.
____ 23. Marfan's syndrome is associated with:
A. defects in production of integrins
B. diminished production of collagen Type I
C. overproduction of mucopolysaccharides
D. abnormality of elastin-associated fibrils
E. absence of lysyl oxidase cross-linking
____ 24. A healing skin wound is characterized by all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. A sutured wound has tensile strength about 70% of
unwounded skin.
B. Collagen Type III, fetal-type collagen, is produced in
granulation tissue.
C. Type III collagen is typically found in a well-healed skin
wound.
D. Healing is adversely influenced by systemic zinc deficiency.
E. Tensile strength of a healed skin wound will never reach
the level of the unwounded skin.
____ 25. Following a whole body dose of ionizing radiation of about 350 r,
(3.5Gy) the reaction that would be expected to appear first is:
A. Leukemia
B. Anemia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Lymphopenia
E. Agranulocytosis
____ 26. All of the following tissues are considered radiosensitive, respond-
ing to less than 2500 r (25 Gy) EXCEPT:
A. Spermatogonia
B. Mature bone
C. Growing bone
D. Lymphocytes
E. Vascular endothelium
____ 27. Low dose ionizing radiation is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Effects vary in frequency with dose
B. Effects do not vary in severity with dose
C. Effects are the result of cell death
D. Effects may result in carcinogenesis
E. There are no early detectable effects
____ 28. Whole body exposure to a single burst of untreated ionizing radia-
tion is lethal in the range of:
A. 1 - 2 Gy (100-200 rad)
B. 5 - 8 REM
C. 2 - 5 Gy (200-500 rad)
D. 1 Sievert
E. 10 mSievert
____ 29. All of the following are examples of a hyperplastic reaction
EXCEPT:
A. Transformation of a columnar to a squamous epithelium in
the bronchus of a smoker.
B. Bone marrow cell proliferation in chronic hypoxia.
C. Lactational change in the breast.
D. Proliferation of thyroid epithelium in Graves disease.
E. Granulation tissue formation following an incisional wound.
____ 30. Which of the following statements regarding the cell cycle is
correct:
A. The S (synthesis) phase consists of cells which are in
mitosis.
B. Cells in the GOG1 phase are tetraploid.
C. Proliferating cell nuclear antigen is present in S phase
cells.
D. A DNA ploidy anaylsis of a tumor showing abnormal DNA
content is diagnostic of malignancy.
E. In a normal resting tissue, most cells are in the G2M phase.
____ 31. All of the following are cytologic features typically associated with
dysplasia EXCEPT:
A. Increased nucleus to cytoplasmic ratio
B. Hyperchromasia
C. Increased number of mitochondria
D. Increased numbers of mitoses
E. Nuclear chromatin irregularities
____ 32. Which of the following tissue types is most likely to undergo
regeneration to normal after injury?
A. Gastrointestinal epithelium
B. Skeletal muscle
C. Central neurons
D. Hepatocytes
E. Cartilage
____ 33. Tumor cells grown in vitro have all of the following characteristics
EXCEPT:
A. lack of contact inhibition
B. reduced serum requirements for growth
C. increased cohesiveness
D. anchorage independence
____ 34. A patient has a benign tumor arising from vascular tissue. The
term that best describes this is:
A. adenoma
B. mixed tumor
C. angiosarcoma
D. angioma
____ 35. A 26 year old man has a sarcoma in his leg. On workup, a meta-
static tumor nodule is discovered in his lung. The likely route of
metastasis is:
A. Lymphatic spread
B. Hematogenous spread
C. Direct seeding
D. Iatrogenic
____ 36. A patient presents with an unusual tumor. The diagnosis of
malignancy depends on the demonstration of monoclonality.
This can be accomplished by:
A. determining tumor invasiveness
B. determining the degree of anaplasia and differentiation
C. determining the proliferative rate
D. determining x-linked enzyme (G6PD) homozygosity
____ 37. Complete postmortem forensic toxicology includes the
quantitation of drugs and their metabolites in blood and
multiple body tissues. This data is useful in determining all of
the following EXCEPT:
A. manner of death
B. quantity of drug administered
C. time of death
D. differentiating acute from chronic administration
____ 38. A 30 year old female was found dead at home. At autopsy, she was
found to have a small round wound on her chest. This wound had
an abrasion immediately surrounding it. Some black pigment was
observed inside the wound. No tissue bridging or undermining
was noted. This wound was caused more likely:
A. by a greasy ice pick
B. by a distant shotgun
C. by a contact handgun
D. by a rusty hammer
____ 39. Which statement is TRUE when investigating a case of
electrocution?
A. Statements of electrical experts are reliable.
B. The electric mark or burn on the body is a necessary
clue.
C. Volts, ohms and amps must be accurately determined as
part of the investigation.
D. The scene of the incident may be disturbed obscuring
important evidence.
____ 40. A 76 year old male found in a closed house, was brought to E.R.
without vital signs. Resucitative efforts were unsuccessful. He
had a history of angina pectoris and had a triple bypass surgery
5 years ago. On physical exam, there was no evidence of trauma.
However, a peculiar cherry red coloration was noted on the back
of the body. How will you, as a medical examiner, handle this
case?
A. sign the cause of death as cardiopulmonary arrest
B. ask Dr. Panner to perform an autopsy
C. send a sample of blood for carbon monoxide level
D. call the police because the lividity on the body had fixed
____ 41. Grading of a malignant neoplasm is an assessment of:
A. tumor aggressiveness
B. extent of tumor spread
C. genetic instability
D. the presence and degree of associated paraneoplastic
syndrome
____ 42. All of the following are characteristics of malignant neoplasms
EXCEPT:
A. They have the potential to metastasize.
B. They are generally characterized grossly by infiltrative
borders.
C. They tend to recur locally.
D. They generally have a low nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio.
____ 43. The following are benign neoplasms with potential to develop
malignancy EXCEPT:
A. adenomatous polyp
B. condyloma
C. seborrheic keratosis
D. none of the above
____ 44. Localized prostate cancer may be treated in all of the following
ways EXCEPT:
A. radical prostatectomy
B. external radiation therapy
C. non-hormonal chemotherapy
D. no treatment
____ 45. Hormonal based therapy for prostatic carcinoma includes all of
the following EXCEPT:
A. orchiectomy
B. antiandrogens such as flutamide
C. diethlystilbesterol
D. corticosteroids
____ 46. Carcinoma in-situ is defined as carcinoma confined to:
A. blood vessels
B. above the epithelial basement membrane adjacent to tumor
C. submucosa
D. lymph nodes
____ 47. Dysplasia represents:
A. A change of epithelium of one type to another type.
B. Cytolologic changes which begin to show features associated
with malignancy.
C. A lesion which always regresses.
D. A stage which usually lasts for only weeks or months at most.
____ 48. Tumor markers can be used in which of the following ways:
A. to screen patients for malignancy
B. monitor therapeutic efficacy
C. follow patients for the recurrence of the malignancy
D. all of the above
____ 49. What percent of malignant cells which reach the blood stream will
implant and grow as metastases?
A. less than 1%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. 100%
____ 50. Silicosis is associated with an increased incidence of:
A. tuberculosis
B. carcinoma
C. asbestosis
D. lung abscesses
____ 51. The core of a ferruginous body is usually a fiber of:
A. fiberglass
B. elastin
C. collagen
D. asbestos
E. aluminum
____ 52. Occurrence of mesothelioma is most often associated with
exposure to:
A. asbestos
B. beryllium
C. carbon
D. silica dust
E. tobacco smoke
____ 53. Pesticides of the organophosphate class act by causing:
A. direct chemical injury to the tissue with coagulation
necrosis
B. indirect injury to tissue by combining with hemoglobin
with resulting tissue anoxia
C. selective toxicity or a depression of the function of the
target cell or organ (the brain)
D. selective inhibition of cholinesterase with accumulation of
acetycholine
____ 54. Which of the following agents acts directly on hemoglobin to
inhibit oxygen binding?
A. cyanide
B. arsenic
C. mercury
D. carbon monoxide
E. ethyl alcohol
____ 55. In acute poisoning, the mercuric ion in the kidney principally
affects the:
A. tubular epithelium
B. glomeruli
C. renal papillae
D. vasculature
E. connective tissue
____ 56. A young child with clinical signs of cerebral edema, a history of
abdominal cramps, anemia, and increased radiodensity of the
epiphyses probably has been poisoned with:
A. benzene
B. lead
C. aspirin
D. carbon monoxide
E. cadmium
____ 57. The hypothesis that there is no threshold dose for chemical
carcinogens (minimal carcinogenic dose) follows from:
A. the probability that at least one of a large number of
molecules of carcinogen will "hit" nuclear DNA
B. the fact that only a single "hit" of DNA is needed to
produce a mutation
C. the fact that chemical carcinogens are also mutagens
D. dose x (time) n = constant in experimental work
E. the slow rates of metabolic conversion of chemical
carcinogens
____ 58. Which ONE of the following statements is true?
A. Aryl hydrocarbon hydroxylase converts to 3,4 benzopyrene,
an environmental precarcinogen into a carcinogen.
B. Workers exposed to azo dyes are at risk mainly for develop-
ment of squamous cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder.
C. Cancers of the urinary bladder that develop in workers
exposed to aromatic amines (e.g. 2-naphthylamine)
are, as a rule, poorly differentiated squamous cell
carcinomas.
D. Debates about possible risks posed by adding nitrites to
sausages are based on mutagenic reactions of nitrite
ions with DNA.
E. Alkylating agents used in cancer chemotherapy are, as a
rule, non-carcinogenic.
____ 59. Which one of the following items is least likely to be involved in
metabolic activation of aromatic amines and azo dyes in the liver?
A. cytochrome P-450
B. rough endoplasmic reticulum
C. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D. NADPH
E. deaminases
____ 60. The initiation-promotion theory of carcinogenesis:
A. applies only to chemical carcinogenesis
B. does not encompass viral carcinogenesis
C. does not apply to radiation carcinogenesis
D. has been refined so as to encompass cellular events at
the molecular level
E. fails to account for latency in carcinogenesis
____ 61. The carrier state in a patient means that the patient:
A. has been previously infected by an infectious agent and
now has serological evidence of its presence
B. is clinically ill with an infection and is actively shedding
the infectious agent
C. is asymptomatic but shedding the infectious agent
D. is clinically ill and the infectious agent is in a latent state
____ 62. What is the relationship between a vector and a carrier?
A. vector and carrier are synonyms
B. vectors transport carriers
C. carriers transport vectors
D. both vectors and carriers harbor potential pathogens
E. there is no relationship between vectors and carriers
____ 63. Blood eosinophilia is most often associated with which type of
infection?
A. fungal
B. viral
C. helminthic
D. chlamydial
E. mycobacterial
____ 64. Erysipelas is most frequently caused by:
A. Streptococcus viridans
B. Staphylococcus
C. group A Streptococcus
D. Proteus species
E. Pseudomonas species
____ 65. Congenital syphilis results from infection of the conceptus:
A. at the time of fertilization
B. in the first 8 weeks of pregnancy
C. after the fourth month of pregnancy
D. during labor
____ 66. The lesion of reinfection, reactivation, or adult tuberculosis
characteristically begins in a:
A. major bronchus
B. hilar lymph node
C. random subpleural
D. subapical region of a lung
E. lower lobe of the lung
____ 67. Your tuberculin skin test has recently converted to positive. The
most likely explanation is that, as a health care professional, you
have come in contact with an infected patient and contracted
the disease by:
A. ingestion
B. abraded skin becoming contaminated
C. inhalation
D. inoculation with contaminated needle
____ 68. Whitish, plaque-like colonies of organisms superficially infecting
the mucosal surfaces of the oral cavity and vagina can be seen in:
A. tuberculosis
B. coccidioidomycosis
C. histoplasmosis
D. moniliasis (candidiasis)
E. actinomycosis
____ 69. A person with coccidioidomycosis is most likely to have lived in:
A. California
B. Florida
C. New York
D. South Dakota
E. Tennessee
____ 70. A 6 year old farm boy developed restlessness, hallucinations and
convulsions and dies 2 days later. At autopsy the only significant
finding was large eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions in neurons.
The findings are consistent with:
A. Rabies
B. Herpes simplex encephalitis
C. both
D. neither
____ 71. Viruses are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. obligate intracellular parasites
B. smaller than bacteria
C. may infect cell without causing clinically apparent
disease
D. uniformly poor antigens
E. exhibit a specific but not absolute cytotropism
____ 72. Epstein-Barr virus is associated with:
A. infectious mononucleosis
B. Burkitt's lymphoma
C. both
D. neither
____ 73. A viral disease produced by the activation of a latent infection is:
A. poliomyelitis
B. rubella
C. rubeola
D. variola
E. zoster
____ 74. Of the following, the viral disease which causes congenital
anomalies is:
A. measles (rubeola)
B. rubella
C. chickenpox
D. mumps
E. smallpox
____ 75. A common infection observed in cystic fibrosis patients is:
A. Staphylococcal endocarditis
B. Cystitis secondary to Proteus sp.
C. Meningitis secondary to Strep. pneumoniae
D. Pneumonia secondary to Pseudomonas sp.
____ 76. Which of the following diseases is (are) associated with defective
humoral immunity (e.g. defective antibody production):
A. multiple myeloma
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Bruton's x-linked agammaglobulinemia
D. A and C
E. A + B + C
____ 77. Pneumocystis pneumonia is usually found in the following
clinical setting:
A. immotile cilia syndrome
B. burn patients
C. leukemia patients receiving intensive chemotherapy
D. patients with splenectomy secondary to sickle cell
anemia
____ 78. Patients with defects in cell mediated immunity are at risk for the
following infection(s):
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Aspergillosis
C. Pneumocystis pneumonia
D. A and C
E. A + B + C
____ 79. All of the following conditions are examples of alterations in
"local defenses" (e.g. mechanical/anatomic barriers) EXCEPT:
A. Immotile cilia syndrome
B. IV drug abuse
C. Burns
D. AIDS
E. Indwelling urinary catheters
____ 80. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. Mallory bodies are an example of a cytoskeletal abnormality.
B. The terms alcoholic hyalin and Mallory body are used
interchangeably.
C. Mallory bodies are eosinophilic inclusions seen in hepatocytes.
D. "Alcoholic hyalin" is specific for alcoholic liver disease.
E. Mallory bodies represent aggregates of prekeratin
intermediate filaments.
____ 81. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. Dystrophic calcification occurs only within cells but meta-
static calcification can be intracellular or extracellular.
B. Systemic deposition of calcium salts in patients with hyper-
parathyroidism is called metastatic calcification.
C. Dystrophic calcification is the term used to describe
pathologic calcification in patients with abnormal
serum calcium.
D. Metastatic calcification refers to systemic deposition of
calcium salts in patients with disseminated malignancy.
E. Psammoma bodies (as seen in papillary thyroid and ovarian
cancer) are an example of metastatic calcification.
____ 82. Which statement is INCORRECT?
A. Accumulation of carbon particles is called anthracosis.
B. The Prussian blue reaction is used to demonstrate iron.
C. Hemosiderin is often referred to as the "wear and tear"
pigment because it accumulates in sites of prior
trauma and hemorrhage.
D. Lipofuscin is deposited in cells as a consequence of free
radical injury and is referred to as the "aging pigment".
E. Hemosiderin and bilirubin are both pigments derived from
red cell metabolism and breakdown.
____ 83. You examine a liver biopsy from a diabetic patient which shows
clear intranuclear vacuoles in hepatocytes. These clear vacuoles
stain rose-violet with a periodic acid Schiff (PAS) stain, however,
the addition of diastase abolishes this staining reaction.
These vacuoles contain (one answer):
A. Glycogen
B. Fat
C. Glucose
D. Protein
E. Mucin
____ 84. The term for severe generalized edema is?
A. Pitting edema
B. Anasarca
C. Ascites
D. Generalized edema
E. Nephrotic syndrome
____ 85. Edema represents an imbalance between the intravascular and
interstitial fluid compartments which can be initiated by a variety
of mechanisms. Which of the following mechanisms is the LEAST
common?
A. Impaired venous return
B. Lymphatic obstruction
C. Sodium retention
D. Arteriolar dilatation
E. Reduced plasma oncotic pressure
____ 86. At autopsy, a patient is found to have nutmeg liver. You might
suspect that this patient has suffered from:
A. Chronic iron overload
B. Left-sided heart failure only
C. Unusual culinary habits
D. Biventricular congestive heart failure
E. Anemia
____ 87. Characteristics of irreversible shock include all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Increased cardiac contractility
B. Hypotension
C. Acidosis
D. Progressive electrolyte imbalance
E. Coma
____ 88. Examples of hypovolemic shock include all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Massive trauma with aortic transaction
B. Third degree burns
C. Massive pulmonary embolism
D. Uncontrolled vomiting
E. Cholera
____ 89. If the following events were put in sequence as they occur in an
inflammatory reaction, which would occur third?
A. vascular dilation and increased permeability
B. adhesion of leukocytes
C. release of chemical mediators and acidic substances
D. accumulation of leukocytes at site of injury
____ 90. As the circulating blood flows in the capillaries, it can be
differentiated into an axial stream and a peripheral stream.
Normally, the peripheral stream contains:
A. white cells
B. erythrocytes
C. white cells and red cells
D. thrombocytes
E. only plasma
____ 91. Which is a polypeptide vasodilator?
A. histamine
B. Hageman factor
C. bradykinin
D. serotonin
E. kallikrein
____ 92. The most important complement-derived chemotactic factor
for neutrophils is:
A. C1
B. C3a
C. C4
D. C5a
E. C5b67
____ 93. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes are by definition part of:
A. granuloma
B. granulation tissue
C. both
D. neither
____ 94. The epithelioid cells of a tubercle are derived from:
A. Langhans' giant cells
B. lymphocytes
C. capillary endothelial cells
D. mononuclear phagocytes
E. polymorphonuclear phagocytes
____ 95. Children with chronic granulomatous disease of childhood have
a defect in:
A. neutrophil myeloperoxidase/hydrogen peroxide system
B. neutrophil membrane receptors for the Fc fragment
C. complement activation via the classical pathway
D. macrophage activation
____ 96. Which of the following is common to tuberculosis, leprosy, and
sarcoidosis?
A. mycobacterial infection
B. plasmacytic endarteritis
C. granulomatous inflammation
D. pulmonary disease
____ 97. Identification of a granulomatous reaction depends on the
presence of:
A. Langhans' type giant cells
B. fibroblasts and lymphocytes
C. necrosis
D. masses of macrophages or epithelioid cells
E. the identification of the causative agent
____ 98. In comparison to cellulitis, an abscess is more likely to be
caused by:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Group A (beta hemolytic) streptococci
C. both
D. neither
____ 99. Choose the statement(s) which best generally describes
oncogenes.
A. A proto oncogene is involved in neoplastic transformation
typically through an activation event leading to some
form of deregulation.
B. Proto oncogenes are not normal cellular genes.
C. Oncogene protein products have key roles in regulation of
the cell's response to extracellular and intracellular
signals.
D. A and C are correct
E. All of the above are correct
____100. Karyotype analysis of patients with lymphomas and leukemias
has demonstrated that:
A. Translocation of proto oncogenes places them in chromo-
some environments which always results in enhanced
transcription.
B. Chromosomal rearrangements are present in all cases.
C. Gene amplification leading to homogeneous staining
regions are frequently encountered.
D. It is difficult to correlate specific translocations with
specific forms of the disease.
E. B and D are correct
____101. Diagnostic Polymerase Chain Reaction of a suspected chromo-
some 9/22 translocation involving the abl oncogene:
A. Is not possible because of the oncogene's new location on
chromosome 22.
B. Would demonstrate no PCR product from the chromosome
9 in the homozygote t(9:22) using chromosome 9/abl
primers.
C. Would be expected to produce several products of hetero-
geneous size and sequence composition.
D. Would require control primer sets for chromosome 9 and
abl and translocation primter sets for chromosome 22
and abl.
E. B and D are correct
Return to Pathology 500 Exams Page
Return to Rochester Pathology Home Page
Return to Pathology Internet Resources Page